Solved: The Problem Of Creating Subinterface

Currently, let’s focus on the encapsulation problem connected with the problem of creating sub-interface.
Questioned:
1 . We should instead use 802. 1q so that you can encapsulate sub-interface to install IP when you configure the main one-arm running. Is it possible to work with any feature before encapsulation? Or could it be configured including configuring MTU? And can considerably more IP possibly be configured immediately after configuration?
Responded:
It can be related to the actual model.

2. When establishing Frame Pass on, the Shape Relay will likely be encapsulated with subinterface. Will it be like a one-arm routing, Whether it is equipped without the need of packaging, manages to do it configure IP? or it could possibly not be constructed and made use of without whole packaging?
Responded:
The router is a Stratum 3 system. Although the sub-interface is a internet interface, it can be a Layer three interface. The main Layer a few interface could not identify the outcome Frame together with the 802. 1q tag. The best way to identify Records Frame? You must configure encapsulation of 802. 1q for any sub-interface. In the event the frame goes in the sub-interface, the shape is removed off, hence the corresponding point will be shipped to the link in order to facilitate different switches in the event the router travels to other cadre. And other knobs can be known to be.

3. A real interface is definitely separated many sub-interfaces. Specifically this sub-interface look like previous to it is summarized? What is the change between the sub-interfaces and usual Layer 3 interface in addition to Layer 4 interface?
Responded:
The actual sub-interface prescription medication same as the actual physical screen before it can be encapsulated. Even so the sub-interface is absolutely not configured without having encapsulation designation. So It are not called a sub-interface.

Cisco 300-101 Dumps, Implementing Cisco IP Routing

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Latest 300-101 dumps exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1
If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Exhibit:
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Exhibit:
You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer: with the type layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer: with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Merge Down
C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose Layer>Group with Previous
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
Correct Answer: CD
300-101 Dumps

QUESTION 8
Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set
D. only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Cisco 300-115 Exam Real Exam Questions & Answers

Itcertpasses provides an exam profile for the Cisco 300-115 exam for the CCENT and CCNA certifications. Pearson IT Certification provides a variety of exam preparation tools to help our customers in their quest for certification. As part of our service to you, we have developed this 300-115 pdf Exam Profile series. Each profile is developed based on the testing experience of one of our trainers or authors.

Latest Cisco 300-115 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1
Which protocol is best suited for connecting two data centers together?
A. LISP
B. OTV
C. FabricPath
D. vPC
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement about the Overlay Transport Virtualization protocol is true?
A. It is IP-based functionality that provides Layer 3 extension over any transport.
B. The data plane exchanges MAC reachability info.
C. The control plane protocol is IS-IS.
D. It supports FCoE.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is one example of a fully virtualized environment in the data center?
A. Hadoop clusters
B. VDI
C. vPC
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option is an advantage of utilizing hypervisor technology within a Cisco Unified Fabric data center environment?
A. distributed load processing
B. availability of blade versus rack-mountable servers
C. reduced power and cooling requirements
D. integrating the virtual machines into the access layer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which option is a recommended practice when migrating from an existing data center to a new data center?
A. Assign multiple virtual servers per one high-performance server.
B. Utilize the hypervisor tools available to ensure processor compatibility.
C. Only migrate bare metal servers when transitioning from rack-mountable to blade servers.
D. Utilize FabricPath across data centers to manage the migration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
What are traits of a routing protocol used in a data center? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary and secure
B. fast route convergence
C. support for ECMP
D. support for LACP
E. support for large hop limit
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two technologies minimize or eliminate the need for STP in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. BPDU
D. vPC
E. VDC
F. MPLS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two FEX topologies trade deterministic bandwidth for server-link stability during FEX uplink failure? (Choose two.)
A. port channel
B. static pinning
C. virtual port channel
D. dynamic pinning
E. Equal-Cost Multipath
F. RPVST
Correct Answer: AC

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Latest ADM-201 dumps exam questions and answers
QUESTION 10
Frame relay is associated with which layer of the OSI model?
A. Network
B. Session
C. Physical
D. Data link
E. Transport
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which is the default match order used for ACL rules?
A. auto
B. LIFO
C. config
D. longest match
E. determined by ?bits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button. In the configuration example, which command is needed to complete the GRE configuration?
A. [RTA] ike peer RTB
B. [RTB] ike peer RTA
C. [RTA] set mode ip_tunnel
D. [RTB] set mode ip_tunnel
E. [RTA-Tunnel0/0] destination 1.1.1.1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
What is the IPSEC security feature that can detect an illegal change to a packet’s content referred to as?
A. 3DES
B. Anti-replay
C. Data integrity
D. Data confidentiality
E. Data authentication
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which three are features of IP Security (IPSec)? (Choose three.)
A. Is a Layer 2 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
B. Is a Layer 3 Virtual Private network (VPN) protocol
C. Can transport IP, IPX, AppleTalk and other protocols
D. Supports two security modes: tunneling and transport mode
E. Requires Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) as a transport protocol
F. Consists of three protocols: Authentication Header, Encapsulation Security Payload, and Internet Key Exchange
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 15
What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets?
A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0
B. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
C. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255
D. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
When there are multiple IGMP-enabled routers connected to an IP subnet, which router will become the IGMP querier (IGMP-designated router)?
A. The router with the lowest Router ID
B. The router with the highest Router ID
C. The router with the lowest IP address
D. The router with the highest IP address
E. The router with the least cost route to the Internet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What is a standard way to group users for audio/video applications without overwhelming network bandwidth?
A. IP Unicasting
B. IP Multicasting
C. IP Broadcasting
D. Link Aggregation
E. Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which three are characteristics of xDSL technology? (Choose three.)
A. It can transfer data at speeds up to 30 Mbps
B. It converts existing twisted pair telephone lines into high-speed data paths
C. It simultaneously provides high-speed data and Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)
D. It uses the same packet/frame format as Ethernet, which makes it ideal for LAN to WAN access
E. The speed of an xDSL service depends on the thickness of copper wire and the distance from the telco Central Office (CO)
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 19
What customer-premises equipment (CPE) always connects to the local loop digital service?
A. Analog modem
B. Permanent Virtual Circuit (PVC)
C. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
D. Channel Service Unit (CSU)/ Data Service Unit (DSU)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which three are important Router ID considerations when using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. The Router ID must be unique in a network
B. By default, the Router ID is the first IP address configured on a router
C. The Router ID is a 24-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
D. The Router ID is a 32-bit address that identifies the router within an OSPF domain
E. The Router ID is always the number ?9?that identifies the routing protocol as OSPF
Correct Answer: ABD

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Latest Microsoft 70-483 dumps questions and answers
QUESTION 16
Which two multicast protocols cannot be enabled on the Switch 5500/7700/8800, if IGMP snooping is enabled on the VLAN interface? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP
B. PIM-DM/PIM-SM
C. Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF)
D. Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)
E. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
How do you configure Ethernet ports on the Switch 5500/7700/8800 families?
A. Use the thernet command to enter the Ethernet Port View
B. Use the Portview command to enter the Ethernet Port View
C. Use the Interface command to enter the Ethernet Port View
D. Use the Configure command to enter the Ethernet Port View
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
How would you stop a specific port interface, which has no router attached, from sending and receiving RIP updates?
A. From the interface view, issue the ndo network command
B. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip work command
C. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip input command
D. From the interface view, issue the ndo rip output command
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login. What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A. From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B. From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C. From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D. From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Protocol Independent Multicast – Sparse Mode (PIM-SM) only delivers multicast traffic to network segments with active receivers that have explicitly requested the data.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A. An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
C. A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the authentication server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
How would you configure the Switch 5500/7700/8000 to ensure DHCP clients can communicate with the DHCP server, regardless of which network the client and server reside on?
A. Configure the switch for UDP Helper
B. Configure the switch for DHCP Relay
C. Configure all the switches as DHCP servers
D. Configure both the DHCP master and DHCP slave
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which best describes the result of the command 5500-EI-Ethernet1/0/1]traffic-priority inbound ip-group 3010 cos video where video is defined at priority 5 in the IEEE 8021.p priority table?
A. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
B. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets
C. The Switch 5500 assigns a priority of 5 to all outbound packets identified by ACL 3010
D. Ethernet port 1 on switch unit ID 1 assigns a priority of 5 to all inbound packets identified by ACL 3010
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
You have previously configured a switch port as port link-type trunk. You now want the port to support packets without tagging from multiple VLANs with untagged packets?
A. Use the port link-type hybrid command
B. Use the port link-type access command
C. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type trunk command
D. Use the port link-type access command followed by the port link-type hybrid command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which three are properties of the OSPF Designated Router (DR)? (Choose three.)
A. It speaks for all of its adjacent routers in its area
B. All DRs on a network must have the same Router ID
C. The router with the lowest MAC address is elected DR
D. A router with a priority of zero will never become the DR
E. It is responsible for generating and flooding network link advertisements
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 26
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the configuration of the voice VLAN on the switch (based on the information shown in the exhibit)?
A. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled at both the System View and Port View; and all IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
B. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it has been enabled only at the System View; and 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN
C. The voice VLAN ID is 2; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will automatically be added to the VLAN 2; and the switch filters out all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN whose source MAC does not match the OUI
D. The voice VLAN ID is 2; it was automatically configured; 3Com and Cisco IP phones will be recognized by the switch; and the switch allows all Ethernet frames in the Voice VLAN that are not OUI-based frames
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
What is the primary purpose for using Q-in-Q VLANs (on the Switch 7700/8800, it is referred to as VLAN-VPN)?
A. To provide a VLAN tunneling technique that is transparent to the Internet Service Provider (ISP)
B. To interconnect multiple VLANs to allow packets to be sent between the VLANs without the requirement of a router
C. To create QoS profiles that can be assigned to multiple VLANs vs. configuring each VLAN’s parameters individually
D. Enables a Service Provider to offer transport services that preserve and extend customers’ VLAN topology over a metropolitan-area network (MAN)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three steps are required to configure and enable an ACL on the Switch 5500/7700/8800? (Choose three.)
A. Define the ACL
B. Create the ACL rules
C. Apply the ACL to the switch
D. Apply the ACL to an interface
E. Apply the user-defined flow template to the ACLs
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
What is a key reason for using Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) vs.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) on a network with multiple VLANs?
A. MSTP supports fast-forwarding configuration on edge ports
B. MSTP supports load balancing Virtual LANs (VLANs) across multiple data paths
C. MSTP allows you to choose the root bridge so you can eliminate the need to use VLANs on a Layer 2 network
D. MSTP allows you to configure more than one switch to be the Primary Root for a Multiple Spanning Tree Instance (MSTI) to provide better resilience when VLANs are used
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Click on the exhibit button.
Which best describes the Switch 5500-EI Link Aggregation configuration (based on the output of the display link-aggregation verbose command shown in the exhibit)?
A. The LA group contains two links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
B. The LA group contains two links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
C. The LA group contains four links, the links were manually configured and load sharing has been turned on for the LA group
D. The LA group contains four links, the links were dynamically configured and load sharing has been turned off for the LA group
Correct Answer: B

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